I saw on another thread people arguing about the causes of poverty, whether it is the result of an individual's choices or the result of external factors.
But i think this argument presumes the existence of actual poor people. Now obviously some people have less than others, but i don't think that the people described as "poor" in the modern world, especially in the developed world actually qualify as poor. Poor should mean people who literally have nothing, and can barely find food to eat. But on the contrary the people called "poor" today are the most obese class. And they have access to shelter, water, food, heating, cooling, TV, the internet, etc. if you take a "poor" person today and put him in medieval times with all his possessions he would be living better than royalty.
Thoughts?
But i think this argument presumes the existence of actual poor people. Now obviously some people have less than others, but i don't think that the people described as "poor" in the modern world, especially in the developed world actually qualify as poor. Poor should mean people who literally have nothing, and can barely find food to eat. But on the contrary the people called "poor" today are the most obese class. And they have access to shelter, water, food, heating, cooling, TV, the internet, etc. if you take a "poor" person today and put him in medieval times with all his possessions he would be living better than royalty.
Thoughts?